Political Science Quiz

Political Science Quiz

1. The theory of Natural Rights holds that—

(A) Rights are a divine creation

(B) Rights came from pre-civil society

(D) Rights are granted by the Constitution

Ans : (B)

2. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—

Assertion (A) : The Marxist view of freedom is different from liberal individualist view of freedom.

Reason (R) : According to Marxist view, freedom is not something that an individual can enjoy in isolation.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (A)

3. Who among the following supports the principle of natural inequality ?

(A) Polybius

(B) Cicero

(D) Plato

Ans : (D)

4. The ideal of ‘positive liberty’ was first conceived by—

(A) Aristotle

(B) Hegel

(D) Laski

Ans : (C)

5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer, using the codes given below—

List-I

(a) Justice is the interest of stronger.

(b) Justice is doing one’s own work which is in consonance with one’s own nature.

(d) Justice means judicious distribution of primary goods.

List-II

1. Rawls

2. Thrasymachus

3. Plato

4. Hume

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 4 1 3

(D) 2 3 4 1

Ans : (D)

6. The best adjustment of liberty and equality can be achieved in a regime of—

(A) Liberalism

(B) Socialism

(D) Idealism

Ans : (C)

7. “Political liberty without economic liberty is a myth.” Who has made this statement ?

(A) Aristotle

(B) T. H. Green

(D) H. J. Laski

Ans : (D)

8. “The passion for equality made vain the hope for liberty.” Who has made this statement ?

(A) J. S. Mill

(B) Jeremy Bentham

(D) Lord Acton

Ans : (D)

9. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—

Assertion (A) : Justice is highest good of political life.

Reason (R) : Justice provides man his due and sets right wrongs either by compensation or by punishment.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (A)

10. The liberal thinker who had put forward the theory of “Social Engineering” is—

(A) C. B. Macpherson

(B) Karl J. Popper

(D) L. T. Hobhouse

Ans : (B)

11. By the materialistic interpretation of history Marx explains—

(A) The course of history remains unchanged

(B) The course of history is determined by the leaders of society

(D) The course of history is determined by the mode of production

Ans : (D)

12. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—

Assertion (A) : Marx is the only writer whose works can be termed scientific.

Reason (R) : Where Marxism ends, Anarchism begins.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (B)

13. Who is the author of the famous book ‘History of Early Institutions’ ?

(A) Proudhan

(B) Maxey

(D) Sir Henry Maine

Ans : (D)

14. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—

Assertion (A) : Gandhi was against using the impure means.

Reason (R) : According to him, impure means do not help in achieving the ends.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (A)

15. If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, then whose decision is final ?

(A) President’s decision

(B) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court’s decision

(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha’s decision

Ans : (D)

16. Which of the following attributes of Gandhian theory of Non- Violence are correct ?

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

1. It is not passivity.

2. Its basic principle is truth.

3. It is the weapon of the weak.

4. It is a means of mass participation.

Codes :

(A) 1 and 3

(B) 1 and 2

(D) 2, 3 and 4

Ans : (C)

17. Which of the following was not on the agenda of Non-cooperation Movement ?

(A) To boycott foreign goods

(B) To boycott law courts

(D) To boycott elections under the Government of India Act, 1919

Ans : (C)

18. The alternative to socialism in Gandhian Philosophy is—

(A) Non-violence

(B) Trusteeship

(D) Truth

Ans : (B)

19. Which of the following books has not been written by Marx ?

(A) The Communist Manifesto

(B) Das Capital

(D) The Critique of Political Economy

Ans : (C)

20. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—

Assertion (A) : There is no stable party system in India.

Reason (R) : Indian political parties reflect the complexity of Indian society.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (A)

21. Which one of the following is not a demerit of party system ?

(A) Parties fight for their own interest

(B) Party system destroys the individuality of man

(D) Parties harmonise the organs of Government

Ans : (D)

22. Which of the following statements are correct ?

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

1. Pressure groups are different from Political parties.

2. Political parties and Pressure groups do not differ.

3. Pressure groups do not contest elections.

4. Pressure groups do not try to capture political power directly.

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 2, 3 and 4

(D) 3, 2 and 4

Ans : (C)

23. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer, using the codes given below—

List-I

(a) Charles Mariam

(b) M. P. Follet

(d) A. Appadorai

List-II

1. The Process of Government

2. The Substance of Politics

3. The New State

4. New Aspect of Politics

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 1 4 3

(D) 4 3 1 2

Ans : (D)

24. “Never has any one ruled on earth by basing his rule essentially other than the public opinion.” Who has made this statement ?

(A) Jose Ortegag Gassel

(B) J. S. Mill

(D) Morris Ginsberg

Ans : (A)

25. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—

Assertion (A) : Political parties are the lifeline of Modern Politics.

Reason (R) : Political Parties came into existence with the growth and development of representative institutions and expansion of suffrage.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (A)

26. Who among the following tried to establish co-relation between party system and electoral system ?

(A) H. J. Laski

(B) M. Duverger

(D) Lord Bryce

Ans : (B)

27. Who describes the pressure groups as the Third House of the Legislature ?

(A) Lord Bryce

(B) H. M. Finer

(D) Dicey

Ans : (B)

28. “The State in which all authority and powers are vested in a single centre, whose will and agents are legally omnipotent over the whole area” is known as—

(A) Unitary Government

(B) Federal Government

(D) Presidential Government

Ans : (A)

29. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—

Assertion (A) : A federal system invariably provides for an independent judiciary.

Reason (R) : It settles the disputes between the centre and the constituent units.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (A)

30. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—

Assertion (A) : The growing strength of Central Government in a federal set-up is natural.

Reason (R) : Five factors contribute to the growth of a powerful centre in the federation, namely, war politics, depression politics, Techno-politics, Grantsin-Aid politics and party politics.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (A)

31. In Presidential Government, the President is—

(A) Independent of the Legislature

(B) Dependent on the Legislature

(D) Bound by the advice of Council of Ministers

Ans : (A)

32. A Parliamentary Government cannot function without—

(A) Written Constitution

(B) Rigid Constitution

(D) Independent Judiciary

Ans : (C)

33. Members of the Executive under Presidential System of Government—

(A) Are drawn both the Houses of Legislature

(B) Are taken from the popular House

(D) Become members of Legislature after their appointment as Ministers

Ans : (C)

34. Governments are classified as Parliamentary and Presidential on the basis of—

(A) Relations between the Centre and the States

(B) Relations between the Legislature and the Executive

(D) All of the above

Ans : (B)

35. Who has opined that, “The Constitution limits the arbitrary actions of the Government” ?

(A) Dicey

(B) Rousseau

(D) Strong

Ans : (A)

36. “A State without a Constitution would not be a State, but a regime of anarchy.” This is stated by—

(A) Aristotle

(B) Bryce

(D) Dicey

Ans : (C)

37. Which of the following is not a feature of Unitary System of the Government ?

(A) Administrative unity

(B) Administrative empowerment

(D) A coordination between national unity and Local self administration

Ans : (B)

38. Who raised the demand for ‘Swarajya’ for the first time through his writings ?

(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

(B) Ram Krishna Param Hans

(D) Swami Dayanand Saraswati

Ans : (D)

39. During Civil Disobedience Movement, soldiers of Garhwal Regiment refused to fire on demonstrators at—

(A) Amritsar

(B) Dehradun

(D) Peshawar

Ans : (D)

40. Commenting on the sudden suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement in February 1922, who among the following remarked—

“To sound the order of retreat just when public enthusiasm was reaching the boiling point was nothing short of a national calamity” ?

(A) Motilal Nehru

(B) Subhash Chandra Bose

(D) Mohammad Ali

Ans : (B)

41. Who wrote the book, ‘India Divided’ ?

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(B) M. A. Jinnah

(D) Shyama Prasad Mukherji

Ans : (A)

42. Whose time has been described as the ‘Seedling time of Indian Nationalism’ ?

(A) Lord William Bentinck

(B) Lord Rippon

(D) Lord Curzon

Ans : (C)

43. By whom was the ‘Objectives Resolution’ presented in the Constituent Assembly of India ?

(A) B. R. Ambedkar

(B) G. B. Pant

(D) Jawaharlal Nehru

Ans : (D)

44. Mahatma Gandhi’s first experience with mass movement in India was at—

(A) Champaran

(B) Bardoli

(D) Dandi

Ans : (A)

45. The Swadeshi Movement was launched—

(A) As a protest against the partition of Bengal in 1905

(B) Following division of Congress in 1907

(D) To mark the entry of Mahatma Gandhi in National Movement

Ans : (A)

46. Who among the following moderate leaders had been called, ‘a silver tongued orator’ ?

(A) Dadabhai Naoroji

(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(D) M. G. Ranade

Ans : (B)

47. Which one of the following proposed a three-tier polity for India ?

(A) Nehru Report

(B) Simon Commission Report

(D) Cabinet Mission Plan

Ans : (D)

48. Who was the first Woman President of Indian National Congress ?

(A) Smt. Sarojini Naidu

(B) Smt. Annie Besant

(D) Smt. Indira Gandhi

Ans : (B)

49. When was Mahatma Gandhi President of the Indian National Congress ?

(A) 1923

(B) 1924

(D) 1926

Ans : (B)

50. Who described for the first time, the revolt of 1857 as “The First War of Indian Independence” ?

(A) V. D. Savarkar

(B) R. C. Majumdar

(D) Sir John Lawrence

Ans : (A)

51. What was the real objective behind the ‘Partition of Bengal’ ?

(A) Create a division among the ranks of Indian Nationalists

(B) Stop the tide of Nationalism in Bengal

(D) Appease the large majority of Muslims

Ans : (C)

52. The place where Navy openly revolted in 1946 against British rule in India is—

(A) Bombay (Mumbai)

(B) Calcutta

(D) Cochin

Ans : (A)

53. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—

Assertion (A) : The Indian Independence Act, 1947 ended the British rule in India.

Reason (R) : The Indian Independence Act, 1947 laid down a new constitution for India providing for every detail.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (C)

54. Who among the following is called, “The Prophet of Indian Nationalism and Father of modern India.” ?

(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

(B) Swami Vivekanand

(D) Jawaharlal Nehru

Ans : (A)

55. Which of the following statements about the Vice-President of India are correct ?

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

1. He is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

2. He must be member of the Rajya Sabha for his election as Vice-President.

3. He is elected by the members of both the Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies.

4. If the President resigns or dies, the Vice President officiates as President for not more than six months.

Codes :

(A) 1 and 4

(B) 2 and 3

(D) 3 and 4

Ans : (A)

56. Who of the following linked the Directive Principles with a cheque payable at the convenience of the Bank ?

(A) A. K. Aiyar

(B) H. Kunzru

(D) K. T. Shah

Ans : (D)

57. Who among the following was elected President of India with second preference votes ?

(A) Gyani Zail Singh

(B) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy

(D) V. V. Giri

Ans : (D)

58. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution put limi tation on Legislative powers of Parliament and State Legislatures ?

(A) Article 13

(B) Article 245

(D) All of the above

Ans : (D)

59. Which prominent leader had opposed the Champaran Satyagrah of 1917 because it was led by Mahatma Gandhi ?

(A) N. G. Ranga

(B) T. K. Madhavan

(D) E. M. S. Namboodiripad

Ans : (A)

60. Who among the following has the right to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of the Parliament without being a member of the Parliament ?

(A) Solicitor-General of India

(B) Attorney-General of India

(D) Chief Justice of India

Ans : (B)

61. The guardianship of Indian Constitution is vested in—

(A) The President

(B) The Cabinet

(D) The Supreme Court

Ans : (D)

62. “India that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.” The word ‘Union’ is derived from the Constitution of—

(A) U. S. A.

(B) Switzerland

(D) Australia

Ans : (A)

63. The President of India can be removed from his office by—

(A) The Prime Minister

(B) The Parliament

(D) The Chief Election Commissioner

Ans : (B)

64. A Federal Court was established in India under the Act of—

(A) 1892

(B) 1909

(D) 1935

Ans : (D)

65. The Article of the Indian Constitution which empowers the Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship is—

(A) 8

(B) 9

(D) 11

Ans : (D)

66. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for Ad-hoc Judges in the Supreme Court ?

(A) 124

(B) 125

(D) 127

Ans : (D)

67. Which of the following decides the disputes regarding the election of the President of India ?

(A) The Rajya Sabha

(B) The Lok Sabha

(D) The Chief Election Commissioner

Ans : (C)

68. Which of the following words were added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment ?

(A) Republic, Sovereign

(B) Secular, Democratic

(D) Democratic, Sovereign

Ans : (C)

69. While a resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration—

1. The Speaker shall have right to speak.

2. He shall not preside.

3. He shall be entitled to vote only in the first instance.

4. He shall not be present in the House.

Select your answer from the codes—

(A) 2 and 4 are correct

(B) 1, 2, 3 are correct

(D) 2 and 3 are correct

Ans : (B)

70. Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution is related with—

(A) Anti-Defection Provisions

(B) Indian Languages

(D) Union List, State List and Concurrent List

Ans : (C)

71. In Indian Federation the division of power in three lists has been derived from—

(A) U. S. A.

(B) Canada

(D) Government of India Act, 1935

Ans : (C)

72. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—

Assertion (A) : The Prime Minister in the Indian Political system is very powerful.

Reason (R) : There is Parliamentary system of Government in India.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (A)

73. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below—

List-I

(a) Poona Pact

(b) August Proposal

(d) Wavell Plan

List-II

1. 8 August 1940

2. 14 July 1942

3. 4 June 1945

4. 26 September 1932

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 1 3 4

(B) 4 1 2 3

(D) 3 4 1 2

Ans : (B)

74. Which Amendment of the Indian Constitution gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj System ?

(A) 71st

(B) 72nd

(D) 74th

Ans : (C)

75. Who among the following Congress members rejected the Mountbatten Plan ?

(A) J. B. Kripalani

(B) G. B. Pant

(D) Sardar Patel

Ans : (C)

76. In Which part of the Indian Constitution relations between the Union and the States have been mentioned ?

(A) Part X

(B) Part XI

(D) Part XV

Ans : (B)

77. What is true about the Governor of a State ?

(A) He has no discretionary power

(B) Validity of his discretion can be questioned

(D) High Court may inquire into the advice tendered by Ministers to the Governor

Ans : (C)

78. Which of the following States was the first to establish the Panchayat Raj Institutions ?

(A) Rajasthan

(B) Maharashtra

(D) U. P.

Ans : (A)

79. The Constitutional Government means—

(A) Government according to the terms of the Constitution

(B) Government based on the rule of the law

(D) All these

Ans : (D)

80. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution can the Parliament legislate on any subject in the State list ?

(A) Article 229

(B) Article 230

(D) Article 249

Ans : (D)

81. A constitutional reason to make the centre strong in India is—

(A) Directive Principles of State Policy

(B) Centralised Planning

(D) Union List

Ans : (D)

82. One common point of agreement between Indian and U.S. Federalism is that—

(A) Residuary powers belong to the Centre

(B) Residuary powers belong to the States

(D) The Supreme Court is the arbiter in the event of conflict between the Centre and the States

Ans : (D)

83. Which one of the following qualifications is common to Presidential candidates in both India and the U. S. A. ?

(A) Citizenship

(B) Minimum age

(D) Eligibility to become member of the popular house of the legislature

Ans : (B)

84. Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India may be made by the President—

(A) According to his own judgement

(B) On the request of the Lok Sabha

(D) On the written advice of the Council of Ministers

Ans : (D)

85. The system of Judicial review is found in—

(A) Only in India

(B) Only in Britain

(D) In both India and U.S.A.

Ans : (D)

86. Who has referred Indian Federation as ‘Paramount Federation’ ?

(A) C. H. Alexandrowicz

(B) M. P. Sharma

(D) A. C. Banerjee

Ans : (C)

87. Dadabhai Naoroji has described his theory of ‘Drain of Wealth’ in the book—

(A) Poverty and unBritish rule in India

(B) Exploitative nature of British Rule in India

(D) Nature of British Colonial Rule

Ans : (A)

88. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

(A) State is abstract but the government is concrete

(B) Society is wider than the State

(D) Membership of the State is optional

Ans : (D)

89. “It is true that there is no State where there is no over-ruling force. But the exercise of force does not make a State otherwise a pirate ship or the mutinous army would be a State.” Who has made this statement ?

(A) Fredrick Angels

(B) Robert MacIver

(D) Max Weber

Ans : (D)

90. Which of the following thinkers does not regard territory as an essential element of the State ?

(A) Plato

(B) Locke

(D) Seeley

Ans : (D)

91. Who among the following opines that ‘public service’ and not sovereignty is the essential characteristic of the State ?

(A) Otto Von Gierke

(B) Leon Duguit

(D) A. D. Lindsay

Ans : (B)

92. “The State is the product and manifestation of the irreconcilability of class antagonism.” Who holds the above view ?

(A) Marx

(B) Lenin

(D) Stalin

Ans : (A)

93. The word ‘Polis’ relates to—

(A) Police

(B) Civil Administration

(D) Public opinion

Ans : (C)

94. “Liberty is increased when sovereignty is put into the right hands.” Who has made this statement ?

(A) Friedman

(B) Hayek

(D) L. Strauss

Ans : (C)

95. Who among the following is, associated with ‘Civic-Sovereignty’ Theory ?

(A) John Devey

(B) John Strachy

(D) S. G. Hobson

Ans : (C)

96. Which one of the following ideologies considers political party as ‘a vanguard of the social class’ ?

(A) Idealism

(B) Individualism

(D) Marxism

Ans : (D)

97. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—

Assertion (A) : The concept of sovereignty could not be developed during Middle Ages.

Reason (R) : The social system during the Middle Ages was decentralized and permeated by Christianity.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (A)

98. Who among the following makes a distinction between society and state ?

(A) Pareto

(B) MacIver

(D) Charles Merriam

Ans : (B)

99. Which pair is not correctly matched ?

(A) George Sorel—Syndicalism

(B) Hegel—Individualism

(D) Laski—Pluralism

Ans : (B)

100. Who among the following was the first to propound the Pluralistic Theory of Sovereignty ?

(A) H. J. Laski

(B) Jean Bodin

(D) Otto Von Gierke

Ans : (D)

101. Identify the correct chronological sequence of the following political philosophers.

(A) Hobbes, Locke, Rousseau and Montesquieu

(B) Hobbes, Rousseau, Montesquieu and Locke

(D) Hobbes, Locke, Montesquieu and Rousseau

Ans : (D)

102. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—

Assertion (A) : According to Monists, the sovereignty is supreme, absolute and unlimited.

Reason (R) : In every full-fledged or independent state, there is an ultimate authority, an authority from which there is no appeal.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (A)

103. Who defined sovereignty as the supreme authority which is independent of any other earthly authority ?

(A) Kelsen

(B) Willoughby

(D) Bentham

Ans : (C)

104. The form of oath of office for a Minister for the Union in India is enshrined in—

(A) First Schedule of the Indian Constitution

(B) Second Schedule of the Indian Constitution

(D) Fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution

Ans : (C)

105. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below—

List-I (Author)

(a) Robert Nozick

(b) D. L. Hobman

(d) Alexander Entreaves

List-II (Book)

1. Essay on Welfare State

2. The Welfare State

3. Anarchy, State and Utopia

4. The Notion of the State

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 3 1 2 4

(B) 3 2 1 4

(D) 4 2 3 1

Ans : (B)

106. Who among the following thinkers made the statement that, “Covenant without sword are but words and of no strength to secure men at all.” ?

(A) Pufendorf

(B) Hobbes

(D) Rousseau

Ans : (B)

107. Which theory advocates only ‘night watchman role’ of the State ?

(A) Welfare State Theory

(B) Liberal Theory

(D) Idealist Theory

Ans : (B)

108. Who has said that a welfare state is “a state that provides for its citizens a wide range of social services” ?

(A) G.D.H. Cole

(B) H. J. Laski

(D) T. W. Kent

Ans : (D)

109. Who among the following has maintained that the modern liberal democratic state has become an industrial state ?

(A) Galbraith

(B) MacPherson

(D) Roosevelt

Ans : (B)

110. Which one of the following ideologies aims at the spiritualisation of Politics ?

(A) Marxism

(B) Socialism

(D) Pluralism

Ans : (C)

111. The term ‘Socialism’ was first used by—

(A) Robert Owen

(B) Karl Marx

(D) Bernstein

Ans : (A)

112. Which of the following thinkers is associated with Evolutionary Socialism ?

(A) Lenin

(B) Gramsci

(D) Engels

Ans : (C)

113. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—

Assertion (A) : The ‘positive libralism’ assigns certain functions to the state to perform.

Reason (R) : It assigns state to promote the ‘social welfare’ of the society as a whole.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (A)

114. The best exposition of Liberal concept of nature and functions of the state is found in the writings of—

(A) John Locke

(B) Karl Marx

(D) Norman Angel

Ans : (A)

115. Which of the following is a correct statement ?

(A) A welfare state has to be a socialist state

(B) A capitalist state can also be a welfare state

(D) A liberal state must control means of production

Ans : (B)

116. Regarding the functions of the state, who among the following has used the phrase, “to hinder the hindrances” ?

(A) Mill

(B) Green

(D) Hegel

Ans : (B)

117. Which theory holds that, “the right of the personality is the most important right of the man” ?

(A) The Theory of Natural Rights

(B) The Legal Theory of Rights

(D) The Idealistic Theory of Rights

Ans : (D)

118. Hobbes gives individual the right to disobey the sovereign for—

(A) Self preservation

(B) Protection of Freedom

(D) Removing injustice

Ans : (A)

119. The credit for advocating the legal theory of right goes to—

(A) Austin

(B) Locke

(D) Laski

Ans : (A)

120. Who has remarked that, “All restraint qua restraints is an evil … leaving people to themselves is always better than controlling them” ?

(A) Green

(B) Mill

(D) Popper

Ans : (B)

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1. CENVAT is associated with which rate? – Rate of indirect tax

2. What does National income ignore? – Salary of employees

3. How is Indian economy ? – Mixed economy

4. Upon which development the Second Five Year Plan laid mote stress? – Industrialisation

5. Which is the amount of insurance cover provided to the workers of the unorganized sector under Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana ? – Rs. 30,0007

6. What is the inflation experienced in the country at present? – Cost-push inflation

7. What is Broad money in India? – M3

8. By which bank are the central banking functions in India performed? – Reserve Bank of India

9. Of which bills Open market operations of a Central Bank are sale and purchase? – Trade bills

10. Stock Exchanges play a role in an economy how may itbe termed? – Useful but need strict regulation

11. What is temporary tax levied to obtain additional revenue? – Surcharge

12. Among Indian Economists who had done pioneering work on National Income ? – V. K. R. V. Rao

13. From which sector is the largest contribution in India’s National Income? – Tertiary sector

14. The highest-weight in the revised Whole Sale Price Index, implemented from September 2010 is given to which item? – Food items

15. The performance of which industry is considered performance of the core industry? – Oil and Petroleum

16. Which is the biggest Public Sector undertaking in the country? – Railways

17. Which committee was assigned to recommend reforms in the insurance sector? – Malhotra Committee

18. What percentage of country’s demand for natural rubber is met by in indigenous production? – 97%

19. What is the main source of fund for the National Highway Authority of India? – Cess

20. Which body finalises the Five Year Plan proposals? – National Development Council

21. By whom was the first attempt to initiate economic planning in India made? – By M. Visvesvaraya

22. In five year plan the actual growth performance in India in respect of GDP (at factor cost) was less than the target set? – Ninth five year plan

23. Under Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS), the benefits are available to the people having howmuch minimum age of? – 65 years

24. What is an essential attribute of inflation? – Increase in prices

25. Which bank prints currency notes of the denomination of Rs. 100? – The Bank Note Press, Dewas

26. Amongst the currency quotes USD/JPY, USD/Euro and USD/CAD, which one is referred as the base currency for quotes? – US $

27. Of which purpose was Nationalisation of banks done? – Consolidating the economy

28. In which year, some more commercial banks in addition to the first lot of 141 were nationalised in India? – 1980

29. Who are Debenture holders of a company? – Its creditors

30. What is the basic attribute of a formal organization? – Rules and regulations

31. In recent years, how have the capital outlays for the defence service? – Increasing steadily

32. Which tax is not levied by the Union Government? – Profession Tax

33. Which organizations agency is involved in drafting the Union Budget of India? – Administrative Ministries only

34. Which agency has the power to declare any industrial unit as a potentially sick unit? – BIFR

35. What is the mean of Invisible Export? – Export Services

36. In India, in which sector was the co-operative movement initiated ? – Agricultural credit

37. In India, which is regulated by the forward Markets Commission? – Commodities Futures Trading

38. For internal financing of Five Year Plans, the government depends on which source? – Taxation only

39. Who was the author of the chapter on “Objectives of Planned Development” for the Third Five Year Plan? – Morarji Desai

40. Of the various ways of financing government’s investment expenditure, what is the least inflationary? – taxation

41. Which Mahatma Gandhi series of currency notes issued by the RBI has “ecology” depicted on it ? – Rs. 100

42. To prevent recurrence of scams in Indian Capital Market, To whom has the Government assigned regulatory powers? – SEBI

43. In 1921, the Presidency Banks of Bengal, Madras and Bombay were nationalised to give birth to which bank? – State Bank of India

44. From which sector does the highest sector wise contribution to gross domestic saving comes? – Household sector

45. In the short run, a producer,’ how long continues his production? – Fixed cost

46. Which is the largest importer country of Indian textile? – USA

47. What does the ‘Year of Great Divide’ refere? – To rapid growth rate in population after 1921

48. What was the decentralisation system recommended? – Balwant Rai Mehta

49. What is the principal source of revenue to the State Government in India? – Sales Tax

50. A crossed cheque is one, which can be encashed only at which bank? – State Bank of India.

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Extremely useful questions for Central and State Civil Services, IBPS Banks, MBA and other competitive exams–

1. Income consumption line of the ‘Consumer Theory’ is analogous in ‘Production Theory’ to which one of the following?

(a) Expansion path (b) Isoquant line (c) Ridge line (d) Isocost line (Ans : a)

2. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of magnitude of minima in ascending order in marginal cost (MC) curve, average cost (AC) curve and average variable cost (AVC) curve?

(a) MC, AVC, AC (b) AVC, AC, MC (c) MC, AC, AVC (d) AC, MC, AVC

(Ans : a – It appears from the figure of Q.7 that magnitude of minima of MC is at the lowest point, than the AVC and finally the minima of AC is highest)

3. Given

% change in nominal GNP = 1.8

% change in population = 0.5

% change in price level = 1.3

What is the approximate percentage in real capita GNP?

(a) Zero (b) 0.5 (c) 1.0 (d) 1.3 (Ans : c)

4. Who developed the Time Preference Theory of Interest?

(a) Irving Fisher (b) N. Senior (c) J. R. Hicks (d) J.M. Keynes (Ans : a)

5. Which one of the following is the most important determinant of speculative demand for money?

(a) Income (b) Interest rate (c) Profits (d) Prices (Ans : b)

6. Which one of the following equations was used by Fischer to explain the Quantity Theory of Money?

(Symbols have their usual meanings)

(a) MV = PT (b) MP = VT (c) MP = PT (d) PV = MT (Ans : a)

7. If Y is the total money income of the community, M is the money supply and P is the price level, then how is Vy (the income velocity of money) defined as?

(a) Vy = M/Y (b) Vy = Y/M (c) Vy = Y (MP) (d) Yy = PY/M (Ans : d)

8. When shall an increase in money supply have a small effect on nominal Gross Domestic Product?

(a) If the velocity is decreasing (b) If the velocity is unchanged

9. What is the theory that opening a country to world markets gives an opportunity to utilze unemployed and underemployed resources known as?

(a) Ricardian theory (b) Heckscher – Ohlin theory (c) Vent-for-surplus theory (d) Strategic trade Theory

(Ans : c – Theory, originally developed by Adam Smith states that international trade provides opportunity to uuntilised or under utilized resources of the country.)

10. Which one of the following is a qualitative credit control method?

(a) Open market operations (b) Bank rate (c) Variable cash reserve ratio (d) Moral suasion (Ans : d)

11. Which one of the following pairs is called an open market operation?

(a) Selling and buying of securities or bills by the central bank

(b) Selling and buying of foreign exchange

(d) Selling and buying of gold in the open market by commercial banks (Ans : a)

12. Which one of the following is a source of non-tax revenue for governments?

(a) Import duty on cars (b) Octroi at check points on roads

13. The Laffer Curve explains the relationship between which of the following?

(a) Tax rates and tax revenue (b) Tax rates and employment

14. What does an increase in the ratio of revenue deficit to gross fiscal deficit indicate?

(a) An increase in investment (b) an increase in the utilization of borrowed funds for revenue purposes

(c) An increase in the utilization of borrowed funds for imports (d) An increase in the utilization of borrowed funds for lending (Ans : b)

15. Which of the following is not a non-tariff barrier?

(a) Voluntary export restraint (b) Health and product standards

16. In the Balance-of-Payment Account, the transfer payments are included in which one of the following?

(a) Current account (b) Service account (c) Capital account (d) Official Reserves account (Ans : a)

17. Which one of the following explains Balance-of-Payment adjustment mechanism under the gold standard?

(a) Devaluation (b) Flexible exchange rates (c) Income-adjustment mechanism (d) Price-specie flow mechanism (Ans : d)

18. Which of the following is the highest form of economic integration among different nations?

(a) Custom Union (b) Free Trade Area (c) Economic Union (d) Common Market (Ans : d)

19. Which one of the following best characterizes the Bretton Woods System of exchange rates?

(a) Adjustable fixed exchange rates (b) Fixed exchange rates

20. Which of the following is meant by growth in the context of growth and development?

(a) Growth of gross national product in money terms (b) Growth of per capita income in money terms

21. Who among the following developed the wage-goods model?

(a) M. Dobb (b) A.K. Sen (c) Vakil and Brahmananda (d) P.C. Mahalanobis (Ans : c)

22. Which among the following is not a committed expenditure of the Government of India?

(a) Interest payments (b) Pay and allowances

23. If Median and Mode of a set of observations are 20.6 and 26, respectively, then what is the value of Mean of the observations?

(a) 16 (b) 17.9 (c) 18.4 (d) 19 (Ans : b)

24. Which one of the following indices satisfies both time reversal and factor reversal tests?

(a) Laspeyre’s index number (b) Fisher’s index number (c) Paasche’s index number (d) Kelly’s index number (Ans : b)

25. What is strategy which makes an all out effort to provide the masses of people in India access to basic facilities such as health, education, clean drinking water, etc., termed as?

(a) Inclusive growth strategy (b) Exclusive growth strategy (c) Rapid growth strategy (d) Balanced growth strategy (Ans : a)

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Andra Pradesh Police Constable Syllabus

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Saturday, June 12, 2021

Political Science Quiz

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